UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year’s Questions of POLITY with Solutions (2016-2021)

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency held responsible for the appointment of group “A” officers under varying services.

The competitive examination comprises of two successive stages :

(i) Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination (Objective Type) for the selection of candidates for Main Examination; and

(ii) Civil Services (Main) Examination (Written and Interview) for the selection of candidates for the various Services and posts.

The first phase of the UPSC exam i.e. the Preliminary Examination comprises two Objective type papers (MCQ based), General Studies Paper-I and General Studies Paper-II (CSAT), Paper- II is qualifying in nature (33% marks are needed). In Paper- I for every correct answer 2 marks are awarded and for every wrong answer 1/3rd marks will be deducted i.e. 0.66 marks. Whereas, in Paper-II 2.5 marks are awarded for each correct answer and 1/3rd marks (0.833 marks) are deducted for each wrong answer. The duration of the examination is 2 hours for each paper and both papers are conducted on the same day.

It is important to note that this stage of the examination is meant to serve as a screening test only as the marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination will not be counted for determining the final rank or service of a candidate.

The odds of clearing this stage are highly skewed as the number of candidates who qualify for the Main Examination is about twelve to thirteen times the total approximate number of vacancies to be filled in the year. Only those candidates who are declared to have qualified in the Preliminary Examination in the year will be eligible for admission to the Main Examination of that year. The cut off marks for the past years for the General category are mentioned below.

UPSC Prelims Cut-off Marks over the years (2016-2021)

Year	Cut-off Marks for General category	Percentage
2016	116/200	58%
2017	105.34/200	52.67%
2018	98/200	49%
2019	98/200	49%
2020	92.51/200	46.61%

The Preliminary Exam follows the pattern of objective–type for assessment. It comprises questions from various domains such as economy, polity, geography, history, etc. The syllabus for Paper-I of the Preliminary Examination is given below

Current events of national and international importance.
History of India and Indian National Movement.
Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World.
Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.
General issues on Environmental ecology, Biodiversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization.
General Science.

It is important to prepare for each subject or topic mentioned in the syllabus in a holistic manner in order to clear the examination. While preparing for Paper-I it is important to solve previous year’s questions to get an idea of the breadth of questions asked and predict what sort of questions can be asked in the next year.

The number of questions asked from polity is substantial. The questions on polity have been compiled below after careful analysis of the previous year’s UPSC papers from 2016-2021.

Weightage of Sub-topics of Polity questions in the previous 6 years (2016-2021):

TRENDS AND STRATEGY OF POLITY:

From the above graph, it can be inferred that in Polity the maximum questions have been asked from the section of Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties & Directive Principles Of State Policy. The next important topics are Legislature, Constitution-related terms, and Local Government. Most of the basic Constitution terms have been asked from NCERTs.

Besides, if a candidate has a basic understanding of our political system and Constitution, the questions can be solved. Hence, the most basic resource is NCERTs along with M. Lakshmikanth and also regular reading of the newspaper.

YEAR- WISE QUESTIONS (2016-2021)

2021

Q1. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

(a) A Democratic Republic

(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer – B

Q2. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 14

(b) Article 28

(d) Article 44

Answer – A

Q3. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

(a) The Right to Equality

(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) The Concept of Welfare

Answer – B

Q4. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

(a) Legal right available to citizens only

(b) Legal right available to any person

(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

Answer – B

Q5. ‘Right to privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 19

(d) Article 29

Answer – C

Q6. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer – A

Q7. Constitutional government means __________

(a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure

(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers

(d) a government limited by the terms of the constitution

Answer – D

Q8. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

(a) A committed judiciary

(b) Centralization of powers

(d) Separation of powers

Answer – D

Q9. Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.

(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.

(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government

(d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary

Answer – A

Q10. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.

(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.

(d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Answer – A

Q11. Consider the following statements:

In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
In 1991, Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies
As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one LokSabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer – B

Q12. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?

As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

Q13. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:

Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

Q14. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in Jail.
During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

Q15. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

Q16. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

Q17. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj

(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer – D

2020

Q1. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

(a) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect

(b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either

(d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Answer – D

Q2. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

(a) Right against Exploitation

(b) Right to freedom

(d) Right to equality

Answer – D

Q3. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

(a) The Preamble of the Constitution

(b) Directive Principle of State policy

(d) The conventional practice

Answer – B

Q4. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

Preamble
Directive Principles of State Policy
Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

Q5. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare state?

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) Fundamental rights

(d) Seventh schedule

Answer -A

Q.6. With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

They shall be enforceable by courts
They shall not be enforceable by any court
The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer – D

Q.7. Consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

Q.8. Consider the following statements:

The president of India can summon a session of Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions
There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer – C

Q.9. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in _______ .

(a) The matter of creating new all India services

(b) Amending the Constitution

(d) Making cut motions

Answer – B

Q10. Consider the following statements:

According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of that state.
According to the Representation of People Act,1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

Q11. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following types of citizens?

Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000
Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000
Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer– A

Q12. Consider the following statements:

Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months
State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data
Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer – B

Q13. A constitutional government by definition is a ________ .

(a) government by legislature

(b) popular government

(d) Limited Government

Answer- D

Q14. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

(a) An agency widening the scope of parliamentary democracy

(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism

(d)An agency for the implementation of public policy

Answer – D

Q15. A parliamentary system of government is one in which

(a) All political parties in the parliament are represented in the government

(b) The government is responsible to the parliament and can be removed by it

(d) The government is chosen by the parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Answer – B

2019

Q1. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(d) Article 29

Answer – B

Q2. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.

(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Answer – B

Q3. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

Answer – B

Q4. Consider the following statements:

As per recent amendment to the India Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on the forest areas.
As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
The Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act , 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

Q5. Consider the following statements:

The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

Q6. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime membership of

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) LalBahadurShastri

(d) Morarji Desai

Answer – A

Q7. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

Q8.With reference to the constitution of India, prohibition or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties can not be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the parliament.

(c) In the event of grave financial crises in the country, the President of India can declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union legislature.

Answer – B

Q9. Consider the following statements :

The motion to impeach a judge of the supreme court of India cannot be rejected by the speaker of the LokSabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
The constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the judges of the Supreme Court of India.
The details of the process of the impeachment of the judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
If the motion of the impeachment of a judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each house of the parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that house and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(d) 1,3 and 4

Answer – C

Q10. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee(1969)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution(2000)

Answer – C

Q11. Consider the following statements:

The parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer – A

Q12. With reference to the legislative Assembly of a state in India, consider the following Statements:

The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the house at the commencement of the first session of the year.
When a State Legislature does not have a rule on the particular matter, it follows the lokSabha rule on that matter.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer– C

Q13. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraint

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.

Answer – D

2018

Q.1. In the federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935. Residuary Power were given to the

Federal Legislature
Governor General
Provincial Legislature
Provincial Governors

Answer- B

Q.2.Consider the following statements:

Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

Q.3.Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part 3
Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Answer- C

Q.4.With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
The value of the vote of MPs of the LokSabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 or 2

Answer- A

Q.5.Consider the following statements:

No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State any court during his term of office.
The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- C

Q.6.With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

Committee on Government Assurances
Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Rules Committee
Business Advisory Committee

Answer- B

Q.7.Consider the following statements:

The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- A

Q.8. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

The Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
The powers of the legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
Article 19 is suspended in that State.
The President can make laws relating to that State.

Answer- B

Q.9. Consider the following statements :

The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- A

Q.10. Consider the following statements :

In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969.
In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Answer- B

Q.11. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Answer- B

Q.12.Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ?

Limitation of powers
Equality before law
People’s responsibility to the Government
Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1,2 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer- C

2017

Q.1. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

(a) The intelligence of ordinary men and women

(b) The methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(d) A band of dedicated party workers.

Answer- A

Q.2. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

(a) Privileges

(b) Restraints

(d) Ideology

Answer – A

Q.3. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

(a) Liberty of thought

(b) Economic Liberty

(d) Liberty of belief

Answer- B

Q.4. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

(a) Preamble

(b) The Fundamental Rights

(d) The Fundamental Duties

Answer – A

Q.5. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
Abolition of untouchability

3.Protection of the interests of minorities

Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer- C

Q.6. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.

(c)Rights are claims of the citizens against the State

(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

Answer- C

Q.7. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

Q.8. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

(a)Rights are correlative with Duties

(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Answer- A

Q.9. Which principle among the ‘following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b)Participation of workers in the management of industries

(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Answer- B

Q.10. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon-

Legislative function
Executive function

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

Q.11. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b)1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- B

Q.12. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Answer- D

Q.13. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

(a) Federalism

(b) Democratic decentralization

(d) Direct democracy

Answer- B

Q.14.The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

(a) the executive and legislature work independently.

(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Answer- C

Q.15.Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Answer- C

Q.16.The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

Adjournment motion
Question hour
Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- D

Q.17.With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

Q.18. In India, Judicial Review implies

(a)the power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders

(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

Answer- A

Q.19. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

(a) anyone residing in India.

(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(c)any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency

(d) any citizen of India.

Answer- C

Q.20. Consider the following statements:

In the election for LokSabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in LokSabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

Q.21.Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Natural Right

(c)Constitutional right

(d) Legal Right

Answer- C

Q.22. Consider the following statements:

The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d)3 only

Answer- D

2016

Q.1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

Q.2. Consider the following statements:

The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

Q.3. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases
The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- B

Q.4.The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passes by the

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Answer- D

Q.5. Consider the following statements:

The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- B

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